Hello, I had a few very specific questions regarding HIV and AIDS. If you can help me out, I'll be extremely grateful. I can't really disclose why (it's definitely for a good/positive reason), but all of this is very, very important.
Is there any logical reason whatsoever that a doctor would need a urine sample (maybe as a followup) after the patient has already learned of his or her HIV-positive status? Even just a week or so after finding out?
How long could that sample sit in the refrigerator before taking it to the doctor's office? Would two or three days render any kind of test ineffective?
Would it be possible for a woman to contract HIV by accidentally swallowing an HIV-positive woman's urine?
Could one person contract HIV from another person and subsequently be diagnosed with AIDS even if the original person doesn't have AIDS? What makes it progress from one to the other?
What's the quickest (but still realistic/somewhat common) time frame that HIV could advance to AIDS?
Would it be possible that an HIV-positive woman (unaware of her condition) could have sex with an HIV-negative woman for about a year and not transmit it? Would that be rare or common?
Again, any information is more than appreciated, thanks again!
Submitted April 01, 2015 at 07:09PM by coke_machine http://ift.tt/1DoWypd AskDoctorSmeeee
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